The PYQ practice room
GATE CE 2016 Set 1
All 65 solved GATE CE 2016 Set 1 questions in exam order. Open a question, commit to an answer, and learn from the step-by-step solution. One question at a time.
Go beyond PYQs with Success TrackerAI-powered personalised practice and doubt support. Unlimited practice on eligible plans; AI usage limits apply.Questions
65
Paper marks
100
Question formats
2
MCQ · NAT
Revision mode
Self-paced
No timer. Focus on understanding.
Explore the questions
General Aptitude (GA)
101
Q1MCQ1 markEasyOut of the following four sentences, select the most suitable sentence with respect to grammar and usage.Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
Out of the following four sentences, select the most suitable sentence with respect to grammar and usage.Correct answer
(D) I will not leave the place until the minister meets me.
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
The word 'until' is a negative conjunction, meaning 'up to the time that'. Using 'does not' or 'doesn't' after 'until' creates a double negative, which is grammatically incorrect. Therefore, options (A) and (B) are wrong. In option (C), 'minister' is a singular subject, so the verb should be 'meets' (singular) instead of 'meet' (plural). Thus, option (D) is the most suitable sentence.2
Q2MCQ1 markEasyA rewording of something written or spoken is a ______________.Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
A rewording of something written or spoken is a ______________.Correct answer
(A) paraphrase
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
A paraphrase is a restatement of the meaning of a text or passage using other words. A paradox is a seemingly absurd or self-contradictory statement. A paradigm is a typical example or pattern of something. Paraffin is a flammable, whitish, translucent, waxy solid.3
Q3MCQ1 markEasyArchimedes said, “Give me a lever long enough and a fulcrum on which to place it, and I will move the world.” The sentence above is an example of a ___________ statement.Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
Archimedes said, “Give me a lever long enough and a fulcrum on which to place it, and I will move the world.”The sentence above is an example of a ___________ statement.Correct answer
(A) figurative
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
The statement is figurative because it uses metaphorical language (moving the world with a lever) to express a concept (the power of leverage) rather than describing a literal physical possibility. 'Literal' would mean he actually intended to move the planet. 'Collateral' and 'figurine' are irrelevant in this context.4
Q4MCQ1 markEasyIf ‘relftaga’ means carefree, ‘otaga’ means careful and ‘fertaga’ means careless, which of the following could mean ‘aftercare’?Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
If ‘relftaga’ means carefree, ‘otaga’ means careful and ‘fertaga’ means careless, which of the following could mean ‘aftercare’?Correct answer
(C) tagazen
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
From the given words:- 'relftaga' = carefree
- 'otaga' = careful
- 'fertaga' = careless
- 'relf' = free
- 'o' = ful
- 'fer' = less
In English, 'care' is the second part (after + care). Following the reversal rule, 'taga' (care) should be the first part in the artificial language. Among the options, only tagazen starts with 'taga'. Therefore, 'zen' would mean 'after'.5
Q5MCQ1 markMediumA cube is built using 64 cubic blocks of side one unit. After it is built, one cubic block is removed from every corner of the cube. The resulting surface area of the body (in…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
A cube is built using 64 cubic blocks of side one unit. After it is built, one cubic block is removed from every corner of the cube. The resulting surface area of the body (in square units) after the removal is __________.Correct answer
(D) 96
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
1.The total number of blocks is 64. Since it's a cube, the side length units.2.The initial surface area of the cube is square units.3.When a corner block is removed from a cube, three of its faces that were part of the original surface are removed. However, three new faces (the inner faces of the blocks that were adjacent to the removed block) are now exposed to the surface.4.Net change in surface area per corner = .5.Since the net change is zero for each of the 8 corners, the total surface area remains unchanged.6.Resulting surface area = 96 square units.6
Q6MCQ2 marksMediumA shaving set company sells 4 different types of razors, Elegance, Smooth, Soft and Executive. Elegance sells at Rs. 48, Smooth at Rs. 63, Soft at Rs. 78 and Executive at Rs. 173…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
A shaving set company sells 4 different types of razors, Elegance, Smooth, Soft and Executive. Elegance sells at Rs. 48, Smooth at Rs. 63, Soft at Rs. 78 and Executive at Rs. 173 per piece. The table below shows the numbers of each razor sold in each quarter of a year.Which product contributes the greatest fraction to the revenue of the company in that year?Quarter \ Product Elegance Smooth Soft Executive Q1 27300 20009 17602 9999 Q2 25222 19392 18445 8942 Q3 28976 22429 19544 10234 Q4 21012 18229 16595 10109 Correct answer
(B) Executive
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
To find which product contributes the greatest fraction to the total revenue, we calculate the total revenue for each product over the four quarters.Total Quantity Sold:- Elegance:
- Smooth:
- Soft:
- Executive:
- Elegance:
- Smooth:
- Soft:
- Executive:
7
Q7MCQ2 marksEasyIndian currency notes show the denomination indicated in at least seventeen languages. If this is not an indication of the nation’s diversity, nothing else is. Which of the…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
Indian currency notes show the denomination indicated in at least seventeen languages. If this is not an indication of the nation’s diversity, nothing else is.Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above sentences?Correct answer
(D) Linguistic pluralism is strong evidence of India’s diversity.
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
The statement "If this is not an indication... nothing else is" is a rhetorical device used to emphasize that the subject (linguistic pluralism on currency) is a definitive and strong indicator of the nation's diversity. Option (D) captures this. Option (A) is incorrect because the text says "at least seventeen", not exactly. Option (B) is incorrect because the rhetorical emphasis does not literally mean no other indicators exist. Option (C) is an observation not supported by the logical structure of the argument.8
Q8MCQ2 marksMediumConsider the following statements relating to the level of poker play of four players P, Q, R and S. I. P always beats Q II. R always beats S III.…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
Consider the following statements relating to the level of poker play of four players P, Q, R and S.I. P always beats Q
II. R always beats S
III. S loses to P only sometimes
IV. R always loses to QWhich of the following can be logically inferred from the above statements?(i) P is likely to beat all the three other players
(ii) S is the absolute worst player in the setCorrect answer
(D) neither (i) nor (ii)
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
Step 1: Analyze the 'always' relationships given in the statements.- Statement I: P always beats Q ()
- Statement IV: R always loses to Q, which means Q always beats R ()
- Statement II: R always beats S ()
- Statement III: S loses to P only sometimes. This implies that S beats P (or draws) most of the time. This creates a non-transitive relationship where beats , beats , beats , but beats frequently.
- Inference (i): '**P** is likely to beat all the three other players'. Since P loses to S most of the time, we cannot logically infer that P is likely to beat all three players without more specific frequency data, especially since one player () has a winning record against .
- Inference (ii): '**S** is the absolute worst player in the set'. Since S beats the 'best' player P most of the time, S cannot be considered the absolute worst player in the set.
9
Q9MCQ2 marksEasyIf , which of the following is a factor of ?Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
If , which of the following is a factor of ?Correct answer
(B) (x-1)
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
According to the factor theorem, is a factor of a polynomial if and only if .
Given .
Let's test option (B) where :
.
Since , is a factor of .10
Q10MCQ2 marksMediumIn a process, the number of cycles to failure decreases exponentially with an increase in load. At a load of 80 units, it takes 100 cycles for failure. When the load is halved, it…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
In a process, the number of cycles to failure decreases exponentially with an increase in load. At a load of 80 units, it takes 100 cycles for failure. When the load is halved, it takes 10000 cycles for failure. The load for which the failure will happen in 5000 cycles is ________.Correct answer
(B) 46.02
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
Let be the number of cycles to failure and be the load. The problem states that decreases exponentially with an increase in , which can be modeled as:
Taking the natural logarithm on both sides:
Given data:1.At units, cycles:--- (Eq. 1)2.When the load is halved ( units), cycles:--- (Eq. 2)Subtracting Eq. 1 from Eq. 2:3.We need to find the load for which cycles:--- (Eq. 3)From Eq. 2, we have . Substituting this into Eq. 3:
Using :
Therefore, the load is 46.02 units. The correct option is (B).
Civil Engineering Set-1
5511
Q11NAT1 markMediumNewton-Raphson method is to be used to find root of equation . If the initial trial value for the root is taken as 0.333, the next approximation for the…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
Newton-Raphson method is to be used to find root of equation . If the initial trial value for the root is taken as 0.333, the next approximation for the root would be _________ (note: answer up to three decimal)Correct answer
0.355 to 0.365
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
Given the function .
Its derivative is .
The Newton-Raphson iteration formula is .
Given :1.Calculate :2.Calculate :3.Calculate :
Rounding to three decimal places, the next approximation is 0.360.12
Q12MCQ1 markEasyThe type of partial differential equation…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
The type of partial differential equation isCorrect answer
(C) hyperbolic
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
A second-order partial differential equation of the form is classified by the discriminant .
From the given equation:
(coefficient of )
(coefficient of )
(coefficient of )
.
Since , the equation is hyperbolic.13
Q13MCQ1 markEasyIf the entries in each column of a square matrix add up to 1, then an eigenvalue of isThink it through. Then check your answer.Question
If the entries in each column of a square matrix add up to 1, then an eigenvalue of isCorrect answer
(D) 1
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
If the sum of elements in each column of a square matrix is a constant , then is an eigenvalue of . This is because the sum of elements in each row of the transpose matrix is , which means where is a vector of ones. Thus is an eigenvalue of . Since and have the same eigenvalues, is an eigenvalue of . Here , so 1 is an eigenvalue.14
Q14MCQ1 markEasyType II error in hypothesis testing isThink it through. Then check your answer.Question
Type II error in hypothesis testing isCorrect answer
(A) acceptance of the null hypothesis when it is false and should be rejected
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
A Type II error occurs when one fails to reject a null hypothesis that is actually false. In other words, it is the acceptance of a false null hypothesis.Option (A) states: "acceptance of the null hypothesis when it is false and should be rejected." This perfectly matches the definition of a Type II error.Option (B) describes a Type I error (rejecting a true null hypothesis).
Option (C) describes a correct decision (rejecting a false null hypothesis).
Option (D) is the same as (A).Therefore, the correct definition is given in option (A).15
Q15MCQ1 markMediumThe solution of the partial differential equation is of the formThink it through. Then check your answer.Question
The solution of the partial differential equation is of the formCorrect answer
(B) C e^(kt) [C₁ e^((√(k/α))x) + C₂ e^(-(√(k/α))x)]
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
The given partial differential equation is the one-dimensional heat equation:
We can solve this using the method of separation of variables. Let .
Substituting this into the PDE:
Dividing by :
(where is the separation constant)This gives two ordinary differential equations:1.2.So, . This form is for oscillatory solutions in space and decaying in time, typically for boundary conditions like .However, the options provided suggest a different form for and . Let's re-evaluate the separation constant. If we choose the separation constant as (positive) instead of :
This gives:1.2.Combining these, the general solution would be .Let's compare this with the given options. Let . Then the time part is .
Or, if we use as the constant in the options, then the time part is and the spatial part involves .Let's assume the separation constant is (as used in the options for the time component).
So, .1.. (This doesn't match directly unless or is redefined).Let's assume the separation constant is such that is . This means . So, .Then, . The characteristic equation is , so .
Thus, .Combining and , the solution is:
.This matches option (B) if we absorb into the constants and , or consider as the outside the bracket.Option (A) and (D) have or for the time component, which would arise if the separation constant for was negative, leading to a decaying exponential for (not hyperbolic sines/cosines or real exponentials).
Option (C) has for time, but and for space, which would arise if the separation constant for was negative, i.e., . This would lead to . This is also a valid form depending on boundary conditions, but option (B) is also a valid general form.Given the options, option (B) is a standard form for solutions to the heat equation, particularly for problems with infinite domains or specific boundary conditions where exponential growth/decay in space is possible.16
Q16MCQ1 markMediumConsider the plane truss with load as shown in the figure. Let the horizontal and vertical reactions at the joint B be and , respectively and be the vertical…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
Consider the plane truss with load as shown in the figure. Let the horizontal and vertical reactions at the joint B be and , respectively and be the vertical reaction at the joint C.Which one of the following sets gives the correct values of , and ?
Correct answer
(A) V_B = 0; H_B = 0; V_C = P
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
Step 1: Identify the support reactions. Joint B is a pin support, which has two reaction components: (horizontal) and (vertical). Joint C is a roller support, which has one vertical reaction component: .Step 2: Determine the geometry. The truss is composed of equilateral triangles with side length .- The horizontal distance from B to D is , and from D to C is . Thus, the total span .
- The horizontal distance from B to G can be calculated by summing the horizontal projections of the members: .
- Since and , the load at joint G acts directly above the support at C.
- Sum of horizontal forces: (as there are no other horizontal forces).
- Sum of moments about joint B: .
- Sum of vertical forces: .
17
Q17MCQ1 markEasyIn shear design of an RC beam, other than the allowable shear strength of concrete (), there is also an additional check suggested in IS 456-2000 with respect to the…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
In shear design of an RC beam, other than the allowable shear strength of concrete (), there is also an additional check suggested in IS 456-2000 with respect to the maximum permissible shear stress (). The check for is required to take care ofCorrect answer
(D) possibility of crushing of concrete by diagonal compression
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
According to IS 456:2000, the nominal shear stress in beams shall not exceed . This check is provided to prevent the possibility of crushing of concrete by diagonal compression in the web before the shear reinforcement can yield.18
Q18NAT1 markMediumThe semi-compact section of a laterally unsupported steel beam has an elastic section modulus, plastic section modulus and design bending compressive stress of ,…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
The semi-compact section of a laterally unsupported steel beam has an elastic section modulus, plastic section modulus and design bending compressive stress of , and , respectively. The design flexural capacity (expressed in kNm) of the section is _________Correct answer
99.9 to 100.1
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
For a semi-compact section, the design flexural capacity () is determined by the elastic section modulus () and the design bending compressive stress ().Given data:- Elastic section modulus,
- Plastic section modulus, (Note: For semi-compact sections, the capacity is governed by the elastic section modulus rather than the plastic section modulus )
- Design bending compressive stress,
The design flexural capacity is given by the formula:Substituting the values:To express the capacity in kNm:Thus, the design flexural capacity of the section is .19
Q19MCQ1 markEasyBull's trench kiln is used in the manufacturing ofThink it through. Then check your answer.Question
Bull's trench kiln is used in the manufacturing ofCorrect answer
(C) bricks
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
Bull's trench kiln is a continuous kiln used for burning bricks. It is an elliptical or circular trench dug in the ground where bricks are stacked and fired in a continuous process.20
Q20MCQ1 markEasyThe compound which is largely responsible for initial setting and early strength gain of Ordinary Portland Cement isThink it through. Then check your answer.Question
The compound which is largely responsible for initial setting and early strength gain of Ordinary Portland Cement isCorrect answer
(B) C₃S
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
Tricalcium silicate () is responsible for the early strength of concrete (within 7 days). Tricalcium aluminate () is responsible for the initial setting (flash set). Since the question asks for both, and is the primary strength contributor, (B) is the most appropriate choice.21
Q21MCQ1 markEasyIn the consolidated undrained triaxial test on a saturated soil sample, the pore water pressure is zeroThink it through. Then check your answer.Question
In the consolidated undrained triaxial test on a saturated soil sample, the pore water pressure is zeroCorrect answer
(B) at the end of consolidation stage only
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
In a Consolidated Undrained (CU) test:1.Consolidation stage: Drainage is open, pore water pressure dissipates until it becomes zero.2.Shearing stage: Drainage is closed, and pore water pressure develops as the deviator stress is applied.Thus, pore pressure is zero only at the end of the consolidation stage.22
Q22MCQ1 markEasyA fine grained soil is found to be plastic in the water content range of 26-48%. As per Indian Standard Classification System, the soil is classified asThink it through. Then check your answer.Question
A fine grained soil is found to be plastic in the water content range of 26-48%. As per Indian Standard Classification System, the soil is classified asCorrect answer
(D) CI
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
Given: Plastic range is 26-48%. This means Plastic Limit and Liquid Limit .
Plasticity Index .
According to IS classification:1.A-line .Since , the soil is above the A-line, hence it is Clay (C).2.Since , the soil has intermediate plasticity (I).Therefore, the soil is classified as CI.23
Q23MCQ1 markEasyA vertical cut is to be made in a soil mass having cohesion , angle of internal friction , and unit weight . Considering and as the coefficients of…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
A vertical cut is to be made in a soil mass having cohesion , angle of internal friction , and unit weight . Considering and as the coefficients of active and passive earth pressures, respectively, the maximum depth of unsupported excavation isCorrect answer
(D) 4cγ √(Kₐ)
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
The depth of tension crack in a cohesive soil is given by . The maximum depth of unsupported excavation is twice the depth of the tension crack, i.e., .24
Q24NAT1 markMediumThe direct runoff hydrograph in response to rainfall excess in a catchment is shown in the figure. The area of the catchment (expressed in hectares) is ___________…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
The direct runoff hydrograph in response to rainfall excess in a catchment is shown in the figure. The area of the catchment (expressed in hectares) is ___________
Correct answer
21.5 to 21.7
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
The volume of direct runoff is equal to the area under the direct runoff hydrograph (DRH).Given:- Rainfall excess depth () =
- The DRH is a triangle with base () = and peak flow () = .
25
Q25MCQ1 markEasyThe type of flood routing (Group I) and the equation(s) used for the purpose (Group II) are given below. | Group I | Group II | | :--- | :--- | | P Hydrologic flood routing | 1.…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
The type of flood routing (Group I) and the equation(s) used for the purpose (Group II) are given below.The correct match isGroup I Group II P Hydrologic flood routing 1. Continuity equation Q Hydraulic flood routing 2. Momentum equation 3. Energy equation Correct answer
(B) P - 1; Q - 1 & 2 only
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
Hydrologic flood routing (lumped routing) uses only the continuity equation. Hydraulic flood routing (distributed routing) uses both the continuity and momentum equations (Saint-Venant equations). The energy equation is not typically used for flood routing.26
Q26NAT1 markMediumThe pre-jump Froude Number for a particular flow in a horizontal rectangular channel is 10. The ratio of sequent depths (i.e., post-jump depth to pre-jump depth) is ________Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
The pre-jump Froude Number for a particular flow in a horizontal rectangular channel is 10. The ratio of sequent depths (i.e., post-jump depth to pre-jump depth) is ________Correct answer
13.6 to 13.7
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
For a hydraulic jump in a horizontal rectangular channel, the ratio of sequent depths (post-jump) and (pre-jump) is given by the Belanger equation:Given the pre-jump Froude Number :Rounding to two decimal places, the ratio of sequent depths is approximately 13.65, which falls within the specified range of 13.6 to 13.7.27
Q27MCQ1 markEasyPre-cursors to photochemical oxidants areThink it through. Then check your answer.Question
Pre-cursors to photochemical oxidants areCorrect answer
(A) NO_X, VOCs and sunlight
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
Photochemical oxidants, such as ozone (), are formed in the atmosphere through complex chemical reactions involving nitrogen oxides () and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) in the presence of sunlight. These are known as precursors to photochemical smog.28
Q28MCQ1 markEasyCrown corrosion in a reinforced concrete sewer is caused by:Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
Crown corrosion in a reinforced concrete sewer is caused by:Correct answer
(A) H₂S
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
Crown corrosion in sewers occurs when hydrogen sulfide () gas, produced by anaerobic decomposition of organic matter in sewage, escapes into the sewer atmosphere. It condenses on the moist upper surface (crown) of the sewer pipe, where aerobic bacteria (Thiobacillus) oxidize it to sulfuric acid (). The acid then reacts with the calcium hydroxide in the concrete, leading to structural degradation.29
Q29MCQ1 markMediumIt was decided to construct a fabric filter, using bags of 0.45 m diameter and 7.5 m long, for removing industrial stack gas containing particulates. The expected rate of airflow…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
It was decided to construct a fabric filter, using bags of 0.45 m diameter and 7.5 m long, for removing industrial stack gas containing particulates. The expected rate of airflow into the filter is 10 m³/s. If the filtering velocity is 2.0 m/min, the minimum number of bags (rounded to nearest higher integer) required for continuous cleaning operation isCorrect answer
(B) 29
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
1.Calculate the surface area of a single bag ():2.Convert filtering velocity () to m/s:3.Calculate the total surface area required ():4.Calculate the number of bags ():5.Rounding to the nearest higher integer:bags.30
Q30MCQ1 markMediumMatch the items in Group – I with those in Group – II and choose the right combination. | Group - I | Group - II | | :--- | :--- | | P. Activated sludge process | 1. Nitrifiers…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
Match the items in Group – I with those in Group – II and choose the right combination.Group - I Group - II P. Activated sludge process 1. Nitrifiers and denitrifiers Q. Rising of sludge 2. Autotrophic bacteria R. Conventional nitrification 3. Heterotrophic bacteria S. Biological nitrogen removal 4. Denitrifiers Correct answer
(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
- P. Activated sludge process: Primarily utilizes heterotrophic bacteria (3) to decompose organic matter.
- Q. Rising of sludge: This phenomenon is typically caused by denitrification (4) in the secondary clarifier, where nitrogen gas bubbles attach to sludge flocs and cause them to float.
- R. Conventional nitrification: This process is carried out by autotrophic bacteria (2) such as Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter.
- S. Biological nitrogen removal: This comprehensive process involves both nitrifiers and denitrifiers (1) to convert ammonia to nitrogen gas.
31
Q31MCQ1 markMediumDuring a forensic investigation of pavement failure, an engineer reconstructed the graphs and , using partial and damaged old reports. [figure] Theoretically…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
During a forensic investigation of pavement failure, an engineer reconstructed the graphs and , using partial and damaged old reports.Theoretically plausible correct graphs according to the 'Marshall mixture design output' are
Correct answer
(B) P, Q, S
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
In the Marshall method of mix design, the following properties are plotted against bitumen content to determine the optimum binder content:1.Marshall Stability (Graph ): It initially increases with bitumen content, reaches a maximum, and then decreases as the binder starts to push the aggregates apart. Graph correctly represents this convex relationship.2.Flow (Graph ): It increases monotonically with an increase in bitumen content as the mix becomes more plastic. Graph correctly represents this.3.Air Voids () (Graph ): The percentage of air voids decreases monotonically as the bitumen content increases because the binder fills the available voids. Graph correctly represents this.4.Voids Filled with Bitumen (VFB) (Graph ): As bitumen content increases, it fills more of the voids between aggregates, so VFB must increase monotonically. Graph shows a decrease, which is theoretically incorrect.Since graphs and are theoretically plausible, the correct option is (B).32
Q32NAT1 markEasyIn a one-lane one-way homogeneous traffic stream, the observed average headway is s. The flow (expressed in vehicles/hr) in this traffic stream is________Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
In a one-lane one-way homogeneous traffic stream, the observed average headway is s. The flow (expressed in vehicles/hr) in this traffic stream is________Correct answer
1199 to 1201
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
Given:
Average time headway () = seconds.The relationship between traffic flow () and time headway () is given by the formula:where:- is the flow in vehicles per hour (veh/hr)
- is the time headway in seconds
33
Q33MCQ1 markEasyThe minimum number of satellites needed for a GPS to determine its position precisely isThink it through. Then check your answer.Question
The minimum number of satellites needed for a GPS to determine its position precisely isCorrect answer
(C) 4
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
To determine a precise 3D position (latitude, longitude, and altitude) along with the receiver's clock offset, signals from at least 4 satellites are required. Three satellites are sufficient for a 2D position (latitude and longitude) if altitude is known.34
Q34MCQ1 markEasyThe system that uses the Sun as a source of electromagnetic energy and records the naturally radiated and reflected energy from the object is calledThink it through. Then check your answer.Question
The system that uses the Sun as a source of electromagnetic energy and records the naturally radiated and reflected energy from the object is calledCorrect answer
(C) Passive Remote Sensing
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
Passive remote sensing systems record electromagnetic radiation that is naturally reflected or emitted from the Earth's surface. The most common source of such radiation is the Sun. Active remote sensing systems, on the other hand, provide their own source of energy (e.g., RADAR, LiDAR).35
Q35MCQ1 markEasyThe staff reading taken on a workshop floor using a level is 0.645 m. The inverted staff reading taken to the bottom of a beam is 2.960 m. The reduced level of the floor is 40.500…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
The staff reading taken on a workshop floor using a level is 0.645 m. The inverted staff reading taken to the bottom of a beam is 2.960 m. The reduced level of the floor is 40.500 m. The reduced level (expressed in m) of the bottom of the beam isCorrect answer
(A) 44.105
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
Given:
Reduced Level (RL) of the floor = 40.500 m
Staff reading on the floor (Backsight, BS) = 0.645 m
Inverted staff reading to the bottom of the beam (Foresight, FS) = -2.960 m (Inverted readings are taken as negative in standard height of instrument calculations).Step 1: Calculate the Height of Instrument (HI).
mStep 2: Calculate the RL of the bottom of the beam.
mAlternatively, m.Thus, the correct option is (A).36
Q36MCQ2 marksEasyProbability density function of a random variable is given below isThink it through. Then check your answer.Question
Probability density function of a random variable is given below isCorrect answer
(A) (3)/(4)
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
The probability is calculated by integrating the probability density function from the lower bound of its support to 4.Since for :Thus, the correct option is (A).37
Q37MCQ2 marksMediumThe value of isThink it through. Then check your answer.Question
The value of isCorrect answer
(B) π
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
We evaluate the two integrals separately:1.The first integral is a standard form:2.The second integral is the well-known Dirichlet integral:Summing the two values:Thus, the correct option is (B).38
Q38MCQ2 marksMediumThe area of the region bounded by the parabola and the straight line isThink it through. Then check your answer.Question
The area of the region bounded by the parabola and the straight line isCorrect answer
(B) (9)/(2)
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
To find the area of the region bounded by the parabola and the straight line , we first determine their points of intersection.Equating the two expressions for :
The points of intersection are and .The area is calculated by integrating the difference between the upper curve (the line) and the lower curve (the parabola) from to :Evaluating at the limits:Thus, the area is .39
Q39MCQ2 marksMediumThe magnitudes of vectors P, Q and R are kN, kN and kN, respectively as shown in the figure. [figure] The respective values of the magnitude (in kN)…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
The magnitudes of vectors P, Q and R are kN, kN and kN, respectively as shown in the figure.The respective values of the magnitude (in kN) and the direction (with respect to the -axis) of the resultant vector are
Correct answer
(C) 330.4 and 118.9^
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
To find the resultant vector, we resolve each vector into its and components based on the angles provided in the figure.1.Vector P: Magnitude kN, Angle with the -axis.- kN
- kN
- kN
- kN
- kN
- kN
- kN
- kN
kNDirection of Resultant:
Thus, the magnitude is approximately kN and the direction is . Correct option is (C).40
Q40MCQ2 marksMediumThe respective expressions for complimentary function and particular integral part of the solution of the differential equation…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
The respective expressions for complimentary function and particular integral part of the solution of the differential equation areCorrect answer
(A) [c₁ + c₂ x + c₃ sin √(3)x + c₄ cos √(3)x] and [3x⁴ - 12x² + c]
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
The given differential equation is .1. Complementary Function (CF):
The auxiliary equation is .
Roots are .
For repeated real roots , the part of CF is .
For complex roots , the part of CF is .
So, .2. Particular Integral (PI):
.Comparing with the options, Option (A) matches both CF and PI (the constant in PI is redundant but present in the option).41
Q41MCQ2 marksMediumA 3 m long simply supported beam of uniform cross section is subjected to a uniformly distributed load of in the central 1 m as shown in the figure. [figure]…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
A 3 m long simply supported beam of uniform cross section is subjected to a uniformly distributed load of in the central 1 m as shown in the figure.If the flexural rigidity (EI) of the beam is , the maximum slope (expressed in radians) of the deformed beam is
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Answer checking is unavailable for this question. You can review the published solution without a score.
Correct answer
(MTA)
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
To find the maximum slope of a simply supported beam with a central UDL:1.Calculate the reactions: .2.The maximum slope occurs at the supports (P and Q) due to symmetry.3.Using the area-moment theorem, the slope at support P is the area of the diagram from the support to the center.4. for .5. for .6.Area of diagram for half the beam:
7.Total area for half beam = .8.Slope at support .Note: There appears to be a unit discrepancy in the question as the calculated value does not match the options which are in the order of . Based on standard keys for this specific GATE paper, (B) is the intended answer.- A.
42
Q42MCQ2 marksMediumTwo beams PQ (fixed at P and with a roller support at Q, as shown in Figure I, which allows vertical movement) and XZ (with a hinge at Y) are shown in the Figures I and II…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
Two beams PQ (fixed at P and with a roller support at Q, as shown in Figure I, which allows vertical movement) and XZ (with a hinge at Y) are shown in the Figures I and II respectively. The spans of PQ and XZ are and respectively. Both the beams are under the action of uniformly distributed load () and have the same flexural stiffness, (where, and respectively denote modulus of elasticity and moment of inertia about axis of bending). Let the maximum deflection and maximum rotation be and , respectively, in the case of beam PQ and the corresponding quantities for the beam XZ be and , respectively.📷 Figure: Figure I showing beam PQ with span L, fixed at P and guided roller at Q under UDL W📷 Figure: Figure II showing beam XZ with span 2L, fixed at X and Z, with a hinge at Y under UDL WWhich one of the following relationships is true?Correct answer
(D) δₘₐₓ₁ = δₘₐₓ₂ and θₘₐₓ₁ = θₘₐₓ₂
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
Consider Beam PQ (Figure I): It is fixed at P and has a guided roller at Q. A guided roller prevents rotation but allows vertical translation. Thus, the boundary conditions are and .Consider Beam XZ (Figure II): It is fixed at both ends X and Z with a hinge at the center Y. Due to the symmetry of the structure and the loading (UDL over the entire span ), the slope at the center (hinge Y) must be zero (). Because , the segment XY of beam XZ behaves exactly like beam PQ. Both have a span , are fixed at one end, and have a zero-slope condition at the other end while being subjected to the same UDL . Since the governing differential equations and boundary conditions for beam PQ and segment XY are identical, their deflection and rotation profiles will be identical. Therefore, and .43
Q43MCQ2 marksMediumA plane truss with applied loads is shown in the figure. [figure] The members which do not carry any force areThink it through. Then check your answer.Question
A plane truss with applied loads is shown in the figure.The members which do not carry any force are
Correct answer
(A) FT, TG, HU, MP, PL
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
We identify zero-force members using standard truss analysis rules:1.Joint F: Members EF and FG are collinear. Member FT is non-collinear, and there is no external load at joint F. Therefore, .2.Joint T: Members ET and TS are collinear. Members TF and TG are non-collinear. Since and there is no external load at joint T, the vertical component of must be zero, implying .3.Joint H: Members GH and HJ are collinear. Member HU is non-collinear, and there is no external load at joint H. Therefore, .4.Joint M: Members LM and MN are collinear. Member MP is non-collinear, and there is no external load at joint M. Therefore, .5.Joint P: Members NP and PQ are collinear. Members PM and PL are non-collinear. Since and there is no external load at joint P, the vertical component of must be zero, implying .Thus, the zero-force members are FT, TG, HU, MP, and PL.44
Q44MCQ2 marksMediumA rigid member ACB is shown in the figure. The member is supported at A and B by pinned and guided roller supports, respectively. A force P acts at C as shown. Let …Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
A rigid member ACB is shown in the figure. The member is supported at A and B by pinned and guided roller supports, respectively. A force P acts at C as shown. Let and be the horizontal reactions at supports A and B, respectively, and be the vertical reaction at support A. Self-weight of the member may be ignored.
Correct answer
(D) R_(Av) = P; R_(Bh) = (1.5)/(8)P; and R_(Ah) = (1.5)/(8)P
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
1.Vertical Equilibrium: .2.Moment Equilibrium about A: .3.Horizontal Equilibrium: .Thus, , , and .45
Q45MCQ2 marksMediumA reinforced concrete (RC) beam with width of 250 mm and effective depth of 400 mm is reinforced with Fe415 steel. As per the provisions of IS 456-2000, the minimum and maximum…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
A reinforced concrete (RC) beam with width of 250 mm and effective depth of 400 mm is reinforced with Fe415 steel. As per the provisions of IS 456-2000, the minimum and maximum amount of tensile reinforcement (expressed in ) for the section are, respectivelyCorrect answer
(B) 205 and 4000
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
1.Minimum Reinforcement: According to IS 456:2000, .2.Maximum Reinforcement: According to IS 456:2000, the maximum area of tension reinforcement shall not exceed . Assuming overall depth for calculation purposes or using the standard limit, .46
Q46NAT2 marksEasyFor M25 concrete with creep coefficient of 1.5, the long-term static modulus of elasticity (expressed in MPa) as per the provisions of IS:456-2000 is ________Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
For M25 concrete with creep coefficient of 1.5, the long-term static modulus of elasticity (expressed in MPa) as per the provisions of IS:456-2000 is ________Correct answer
9999 to 10001
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
The short-term static modulus of elasticity () for concrete is given by the formula from IS 456:2000:For M25 grade concrete, the characteristic compressive strength MPa.The long-term static modulus of elasticity () considering the effect of creep is given by:where is the creep coefficient. Given :Thus, the long-term static modulus of elasticity is 10000 MPa.47
Q47MCQ2 marksEasyA propped cantilever of span carries a vertical concentrated load at the mid-span. If the plastic moment capacity of the section is , the magnitude of the collapse load isThink it through. Then check your answer.Question
A propped cantilever of span carries a vertical concentrated load at the mid-span. If the plastic moment capacity of the section is , the magnitude of the collapse load isCorrect answer
(B) (6Mₚ)/(L)
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
For a propped cantilever with a point load at mid-span, collapse occurs when plastic hinges form at the fixed support and under the load.
Using the principle of virtual work:
Internal work (hinge at support and under load).
External work .
Equating .48
Q48MCQ2 marksMediumTwo plates are connected by fillet welds of size 10 mm and subjected to tension, as shown in the figure. The thickness of each plate is 12 mm. The yield stress and the ultimate…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
Two plates are connected by fillet welds of size 10 mm and subjected to tension, as shown in the figure. The thickness of each plate is 12 mm. The yield stress and the ultimate tensile stress of steel are 250 MPa and 410 MPa, respectively. The welding is done in the workshop (). As per the Limit State Method of IS 800: 2007, the minimum length (rounded off to the nearest higher multiple of 5 mm) of each weld to transmit a force equal to 270 kN (factored) is
Correct answer
(B) 105 mm
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
1.Fillet weld size mm.2.Throat thickness mm.3.Design strength of weld MPa.4.Total force kN. Since there are two welds, force per weld kN.5.Required length mm.6.Rounding off to the nearest higher multiple of 5 mm gives 105 mm.49
Q49NAT2 marksEasyThe Optimistic Time (O), Most likely Time (M) and Pessimistic Time (P) (in days) of the activities in the critical path are given below in the format O-M-P. [figure] The expected…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
The Optimistic Time (O), Most likely Time (M) and Pessimistic Time (P) (in days) of the activities in the critical path are given below in the format O-M-P.The expected completion time (in days) of the project is _________
Correct answer
37 to 38
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
In PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique), the expected time () for an activity is calculated using the formula:where:- = Optimistic time
- = Most likely time
- = Pessimistic time
1.For activity E-F (8-10-14):2.For activity F-G (6-8-11):3.For activity G-H (5-7-10):4.For activity H-I (7-12-18):The total expected completion time of the project () is the sum of the expected times of all activities on the critical path:Thus, the expected completion time is approximately 37.83 days, which falls within the range of 37 to 38.50
Q50NAT2 marksEasyThe porosity () and the degree of saturation () of a soil sample are 0.7 and 40%, respectively. In a 100 m volume of the soil, the volume (expressed in m) of air is…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
The porosity () and the degree of saturation () of a soil sample are 0.7 and 40%, respectively. In a 100 m volume of the soil, the volume (expressed in m) of air is _________Correct answer
41 to 43
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
Given data:
Porosity () = 0.7
Degree of saturation () = 40% = 0.4
Total volume of soil () = 100 mStep 1: Calculate the volume of voids ().
Porosity is defined as the ratio of the volume of voids to the total volume:
Step 2: Calculate the volume of water ().
Degree of saturation is defined as the ratio of the volume of water to the volume of voids:
Step 3: Calculate the volume of air ().
The volume of voids is the sum of the volume of air and the volume of water:
Thus, the volume of air is 42 m.51
Q51MCQ2 marksMediumA homogeneous gravity retaining wall supporting a cohesionless backfill is shown in the figure. The lateral active earth pressure at the bottom of the wall is 40 kPa. [figure] The…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
A homogeneous gravity retaining wall supporting a cohesionless backfill is shown in the figure. The lateral active earth pressure at the bottom of the wall is 40 kPa.The minimum weight of the wall (expressed in kN per m length) required to prevent it from overturning about its toe (Point P) is
Correct answer
(A) 120
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
1.Calculate the total active earth force ():The pressure distribution is triangular, starting from 0 at the top to 40 kPa at the bottom over a height .2.Calculate the overturning moment () about toe P:The force acts at a distance of from the base.3.Calculate the restoring moment () about toe P:The weight of the rectangular wall acts at its center, which is at a distance of from the toe P.4.For stability against overturning (minimum weight condition):52
Q52NAT2 marksHardAn undisturbed soil sample was taken from the middle of a clay layer (i.e., 1.5 m below GL), as shown in figure. The water table was at the top of clay layer. Laboratory test…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
An undisturbed soil sample was taken from the middle of a clay layer (i.e., 1.5 m below GL), as shown in figure. The water table was at the top of clay layer. Laboratory test results are as follows:A compacted fill of 2.5 m height with unit weight of 20 kN/m is placed at the ground level.Property Value Natural water content of clay 25% Preconsolidation pressure of clay 60 kPa Compression index of clay 0.50 Recompression index of clay 0.05 Specific gravity of clay 2.70 Bulk unit weight of sand 17 kN/m Assuming unit weight of water as 10 kN/m, the ultimate consolidation settlement (expressed in mm) of the clay layer is ____________
Correct answer
36 to 38
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
1.Initial void ratio () of clay:(assuming saturated clay below GWT)2.Saturated unit weight of clay ():3.Initial effective stress () at middle of clay (1.5 m below GL):4.Final effective stress ():5.Settlement calculation:Since (), the clay is over-consolidated and stress crosses the preconsolidation pressure.53
Q53NAT2 marksMediumA seepage flow condition is shown in the figure. The saturated unit weight of the soil kN/m. Using unit weight of water, kN/m, the…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
A seepage flow condition is shown in the figure. The saturated unit weight of the soil kN/m. Using unit weight of water, kN/m, the effective vertical stress (expressed in kN/m) on plane is ________
Correct answer
65.3 to 65.6
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
1.Identify Seepage Direction and Head Loss:- Head at top of soil () = 3 m (relative to top of soil).
- Head at bottom of soil () = 1 m (relative to top of soil).
- Since , seepage is downward.
- Total head loss m.
- Length of soil column () = 5 m.
- .
- Plane is 1 m from the bottom, so it is at depth m from the top.
- For downward seepage, effective stress .
- kN/m.
- kN/m.
54
Q54NAT2 marksMediumA drained triaxial compression test on a saturated clay yielded the effective shear strength parameters as kPa and . Consolidated Undrained triaxial test…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
A drained triaxial compression test on a saturated clay yielded the effective shear strength parameters as kPa and . Consolidated Undrained triaxial test on an identical sample of this clay at a cell pressure of 200 kPa developed a pore water pressure of 150 kPa at failure. The deviator stress (expressed in kPa) at failure is _________Correct answer
100 to 110
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
1.Determine Effective Stresses at Failure:- Cell pressure (total minor principal stress) kPa.
- Pore water pressure at failure kPa.
- Effective minor principal stress kPa.
- Given , then .
- and .
- kPa.
- kPa.
- The value falls within the range [100, 110].
55
Q55NAT2 marksMediumA concrete gravity dam section is shown in the figure. Assuming unit weight of water as 10 kN/m and unit weight of concrete as 24 kN/m, the uplift force per unit length of…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
A concrete gravity dam section is shown in the figure. Assuming unit weight of water as 10 kN/m and unit weight of concrete as 24 kN/m, the uplift force per unit length of the dam (expressed in kN/m) at is _________
Correct answer
10490 to 10510
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
1.Calculate Uplift Pressures at Key Points:- Pressure at upstream toe : kPa.
- Pressure at downstream toe : kPa.
- Pressure at drainage gallery (located 10m from P): kPa.
- The diagram is composed of two trapezoids.
- Area 1 (from P to Drain, width = 10m): kN/m.
- Area 2 (from Drain to Q, width = 40m): kN/m.
- Total Uplift Force kN/m.
- This matches the target range [10490, 10510].
56
Q56MCQ2 marksMediumSeepage is occurring through a porous media shown in the figure. The hydraulic conductivity values () are in m/day. [figure] The seepage discharge (/day per m)…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
Seepage is occurring through a porous media shown in the figure. The hydraulic conductivity values () are in m/day.The seepage discharge (/day per m) through the porous media at section PQ is
Correct answer
(B) (1)/(2)
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
To find the seepage discharge (), we use Darcy's law for series flow through stratified soil.1. Identify given parameters:- Upstream water head () = m
- Downstream water head () = m
- Total head loss () = m
- Thickness of the porous media () = m
- Width of the flow () = m (per meter length)
- Cross-sectional area () =
- m, m/day
- m, m/day
- m, m/day
57
Q57MCQ2 marksMediumA 4 m wide rectangular channel, having bed slope of 0.001 carries a discharge of . Considering Manning's roughness coefficient and…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
A 4 m wide rectangular channel, having bed slope of 0.001 carries a discharge of . Considering Manning's roughness coefficient and , the category of the channel slope isCorrect answer
(B) mild
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
1.Calculate critical depth :2.Calculate normal depth using Manning's equation:
Solving for gives .3.Compare and :Since (), the flow is subcritical and the slope is mild.58
Q58NAT2 marksHardA sector gate is provided on a spillway as shown in the figure. Assuming , the resultant force per meter length (expressed in kN/m) on the gate will be…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
A sector gate is provided on a spillway as shown in the figure. Assuming , the resultant force per meter length (expressed in kN/m) on the gate will be __________
Correct answer
126 to 128
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
1.Horizontal force :
The vertical projection of the gate is m.
m, .
.2.Vertical force :
Area of sector .
Area of triangle .
.3.Resultant force :.59
Q59NAT2 marksMediumA hydraulically efficient trapezoidal channel section has a uniform flow depth of 2 m. The bed width (expressed in m) of the channel is ________Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
A hydraulically efficient trapezoidal channel section has a uniform flow depth of 2 m. The bed width (expressed in m) of the channel is ________Correct answer
2.29 to 2.32
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
For a hydraulically efficient trapezoidal channel section, the condition for the bed width and flow depth is given by:
Given the uniform flow depth .
Substituting the value of :
Rounding to two decimal places, the bed width is .60
Q60NAT2 marksMediumEffluent from an industry 'A' has a pH of 4.2. The effluent from another industry 'B' has double the hydroxyl () ion concentration than the effluent from industry 'A'. pH of…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
Effluent from an industry 'A' has a pH of 4.2. The effluent from another industry 'B' has double the hydroxyl () ion concentration than the effluent from industry 'A'. pH of effluent from the industry 'B' will be __________Correct answer
4.4 to 4.6
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
Given:
We know that at .
So,
The concentration of hydroxyl ions in effluent A is:
Effluent B has double the hydroxyl ion concentration:
Now, calculate :
Finally, calculate :
The pH of effluent B is approximately 4.5.61
Q61NAT2 marksHardAn electrostatic precipitator (ESP) with 5600 m of collector plate area is 96 percent efficient in treating 185 m/s of flue gas from a 200 MW thermal power plant. It was…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
An electrostatic precipitator (ESP) with 5600 m of collector plate area is 96 percent efficient in treating 185 m/s of flue gas from a 200 MW thermal power plant. It was found that in order to achieve 97 percent efficiency, the collector plate area should be 6100 m. In order to increase the efficiency to 99 percent, the ESP collector plate area (expressed in m) would be ______Correct answer
8000 to 8040
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
The efficiency () of an electrostatic precipitator is given by the Deutsch-Anderson equation:where:
= effective drift velocity
= collector plate area
= gas flow rate
Let . Then .
From the first case:
, m
From the second case:
, m
(The value of is consistent).
For the third case:
, find
m
The required collector plate area is approximately 8012 m.62
Q62NAT2 marksMediumThe 2-day and 4-day BOD values of a sewage sample are 100 mg/L and 155 mg/L, respectively. The value of BOD rate constant (expressed in per day) is _________Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
The 2-day and 4-day BOD values of a sewage sample are 100 mg/L and 155 mg/L, respectively. The value of BOD rate constant (expressed in per day) is _________Correct answer
0.29 to 0.31
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
The BOD at any time is given by the formula:
Given:
--- (1)
--- (2)Dividing equation (2) by (1):
Taking natural logarithm on both sides:
Rounding to two decimal places, the value is approximately 0.30.63
Q63MCQ2 marksMediumA two lane, one-way road with radius of 50 m is predominantly carrying lorries with wheelbase of 5 m. The speed of lorries is restricted to be between 60 kmph and 80 kmph. The…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
A two lane, one-way road with radius of 50 m is predominantly carrying lorries with wheelbase of 5 m. The speed of lorries is restricted to be between 60 kmph and 80 kmph. The mechanical widening and psychological widening required at 60 kmph are designated as and , respectively. The mechanical widening and psychological widening required at 80 kmph are designated as and , respectively. The correct values of , , , , respectively areCorrect answer
(B) 0.50 m, 0.89 m, 0.50 m, and 1.19 m
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
1.Mechanical Widening ():It depends on the number of lanes (), wheelbase length (), and radius of the curve (). It is independent of speed.
Given , m, m:
m.2.Psychological Widening ():It depends on the speed ( in kmph) and the radius ( in m).
At kmph:
m.
At kmph:
m.3.Sequence:m, m, m, m.
This matches option (B).64
Q64NAT2 marksHardWhile traveling along and against the traffic stream, a moving observer measured the relative flows as 50 vehicles/hr and 200 vehicles/hr, respectively. The average speeds of the…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
While traveling along and against the traffic stream, a moving observer measured the relative flows as 50 vehicles/hr and 200 vehicles/hr, respectively. The average speeds of the moving observer while traveling along and against the stream are 20 km/hr and 30 km/hr, respectively. The density of the traffic stream (expressed in vehicles/km) is _________Correct answer
2.9 to 3.1
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
Let be the flow of the traffic stream (vehicles/hr) and be the density of the traffic stream (vehicles/km).According to the moving observer method:1.When moving against the stream:Relative flow,
Given vehicles/hr and km/hr.
---(Equation 1)2.When moving along (with) the stream:Relative flow,
Given vehicles/hr and km/hr.
---(Equation 2)Subtracting Equation 2 from Equation 1:
vehicles/km.The density of the traffic stream is 3 vehicles/km.65
Q65NAT2 marksMediumThe vertical angles subtended by the top of a tower at two instrument stations set up at and , are shown in the figure. The two stations are in line with the tower and…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
The vertical angles subtended by the top of a tower at two instrument stations set up at and , are shown in the figure. The two stations are in line with the tower and spaced at a distance of m. Readings taken from these two stations on a leveling staff placed at the benchmark ( m) are also shown in the figure. The reduced level of the top of the tower (expressed in m) is _________
Correct answer
476.5 to 477.5
Turn this into a strength.Explore AI-powered practice and doubt support with Success Tracker.Step-by-step solution
1.Identify the Height of Instrument () for both stations:The staff is placed at the Benchmark () with m.
From the diagram, the line of sight from station gives a staff reading m.
The line of sight from station gives a staff reading m.
m
m2.Set up the trigonometric equations:Let be the horizontal distance from station to the tower .
The distance from station to the tower is m.
Let be the reduced level of the top of the tower.
From station :
From station :3.Solve for :
m4.Calculate :
mFinal answer is approximately m, which falls within the range .