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GATE ME 2024 Set 1
All 65 solved GATE ME 2024 Set 1 questions in exam order. Open a question, commit to an answer, and learn from the step-by-step solution. One question at a time.
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General Aptitude (GA)
101
Q1MCQ1 markMediumIf ‘’ denotes increasing order of intensity, then the meaning of the words [smile giggle laugh] is analogous to [disapprove …Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
If ‘’ denotes increasing order of intensity, then the meaning of the words
[smile giggle laugh] is analogous to [disapprove ________ chide].
Which one of the given options is appropriate to fill the blank?Correct answer
(A) reprove
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The sequence [smile giggle laugh] represents an increasing order of intensity of a positive facial expression/sound. Similarly, the sequence [disapprove ________ chide] must represent an increasing order of intensity of expressing dissatisfaction.- Disapprove: To have or express an unfavorable opinion.
- Reprove: To reprimand or censure (someone), which is more formal and intense than simple disapproval.
- Chide: To scold or rebuke, which is even more vocal and intense.
2
Q2MCQ1 markEasyFind the odd one out in the set:3
Q3MCQ1 markEasyIn the following series, identify the number that needs to be changed to form the Fibonacci series.Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
In the following series, identify the number that needs to be changed to form the Fibonacci series.Correct answer
(C) 6
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The Fibonacci series is a sequence where each number is the sum of the two preceding ones, starting from 1, 1.
Comparing this to the given series , we see that the number 6 should be 5. Therefore, 6 needs to be changed.4
Q4MCQ1 markMediumThe real variables , and the real constants satisfy Given that the denominators are non-zero,…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
The real variables , and the real constants satisfyGiven that the denominators are non-zero, the value of isCorrect answer
(A) 0
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Let .
Then , , and .
Substituting these into the expression :
.
Therefore, the value is 0.5
Q5MCQ1 markMediumTake two long dice (rectangular parallelepiped), each having four rectangular faces labelled as 2, 3, 5, and 7. If thrown, the long dice cannot land on the square faces and has…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
Take two long dice (rectangular parallelepiped), each having four rectangular faces labelled as 2, 3, 5, and 7. If thrown, the long dice cannot land on the square faces and has 1/4 probability of landing on any of the four rectangular faces. The label on the top face of the dice is the score of the throw. If thrown together, what is the probability of getting the sum of the two long dice scores greater than 11?Correct answer
(D) 3/16
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Each die has 4 faces: {2, 3, 5, 7}.
Total possible outcomes when two dice are thrown = .
We need to find outcomes where the sum is greater than 11.
Possible pairs and their sums:- (5, 7) sum = 12
- (7, 5) sum = 12
- (7, 7) sum = 14
Probability = .6
Q6MCQ2 marksMediumIn the given text, the blanks are numbered (i)−(iv). Select the best match for all the blanks. Prof. P (i) merely a man who narrated funny stories. (ii) in his blackest…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
In the given text, the blanks are numbered (i)−(iv). Select the best match for all the blanks. Prof. P (i) merely a man who narrated funny stories. (ii) in his blackest moments he was capable of self-deprecating humor.Prof. Q (iii) a man who hardly narrated funny stories. (iv) in his blackest moments was he able to find humor.Correct answer
(B) (i) wasn’t (ii) Even (iii) was (iv) Only
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The sentences describe contrasting characteristics of two professors regarding their sense of humor.For Prof. P: "Prof. P wasn't merely a man who narrated funny stories. Even in his blackest moments he was capable of self-deprecating humor." This suggests he had a deep sense of humor that persisted even in bad times.For Prof. Q: "Prof. Q was a man who hardly narrated funny stories. Only in his blackest moments was he able to find humor." This suggests he was generally serious and humor was a rare occurrence triggered by extreme situations.This combination matches option (B).7
Q7MCQ2 marksHardHow many combinations of non-null sets are possible from the subsets of satisfying the conditions: (i) is a subset of , and (ii) is a subset of…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
How many combinations of non-null sets are possible from the subsets of satisfying the conditions: (i) is a subset of , and (ii) is a subset of ?- A.28
- B.27
- C.18
- D.19
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Correct answer
(MTA)
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We are looking for the number of triples such that .
In such problems, the phrase 'from the subsets of ' typically implies that the largest set in the chain is itself, i.e., .
Thus, we need to find the number of pairs such that .
For each element , there are 3 possibilities for its placement in the chain :1. (which implies )2. but3.Total number of such pairs is .
However, we must subtract the cases where is the null set (). If , then we are just counting the number of subsets of , which is .
Therefore, the number of valid combinations is .- A.
8
Q8MCQ2 marksEasyThe bar chart gives the batting averages of VK and RS for 11 calendar years from 2012 to 2022. Considering that 2015 and 2019 are world cup years, which one of the following…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
The bar chart gives the batting averages of VK and RS for 11 calendar years from 2012 to 2022. Considering that 2015 and 2019 are world cup years, which one of the following options is true?
Correct answer
(C) VK’s yearly batting average is consistently higher than that of RS between the two world cup years.
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To determine the correct statement, we analyze the bar chart for the specified years:1.World Cup Years: 2015 and 2019.- In 2015: VK (solid bar) > RS (patterned bar).
- In 2019: RS (patterned bar) appears slightly higher than or equal to VK (solid bar). This makes options (A) and (B) incorrect or uncertain.
- In 2016: VK > RS
- In 2017: VK > RS
- In 2018: VK > RS
3.Last Three Years (2020, 2021, 2022):- In 2020: RS > VK
- In 2021: VK > RS
- In 2022: RS > VK
9
Q9MCQ2 marksMediumA planar rectangular paper has two V-shaped pieces attached as shown below. [figure] This piece of paper is folded to make the following closed three-dimensional object. [figure]…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
A planar rectangular paper has two V-shaped pieces attached as shown below.This piece of paper is folded to make the following closed three-dimensional object.
The number of folds required to form the above object is
Correct answer
(A) 9
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To form the closed V-shaped 3D object from the net:1.The main rectangular strip must be folded to form the 6 rectangular faces (outer left, outer right, two top faces, inner left, inner right). This requires 5 folds along the length of the strip.2.The two V-shaped end pieces are attached to the strip. Folding them up to be perpendicular to the strip requires 2 folds (one for each end piece).3.Each V-shaped end piece itself must be bent in the middle to match the V-profile of the strip. This requires 1 fold per end piece, totaling 2 folds.Total number of folds = .10
Q10MCQ2 marksMediumFour equilateral triangles are used to form a regular closed three-dimensional object by joining along the edges. The angle between any two faces isThink it through. Then check your answer.Question
Four equilateral triangles are used to form a regular closed three-dimensional object by joining along the edges. The angle between any two faces is- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
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Correct answer
(MTA)
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A regular closed three-dimensional object formed by four equilateral triangles is a regular tetrahedron. The dihedral angle between any two faces of a regular tetrahedron is given by , which means . Since none of the options () match this value, this question was marked as 'Marks to All' (MTA) in the official GATE 2024 answer key.- A.
Mechanical Engineering (ME)
5511
Q11MCQ1 markMediumIn order to numerically solve the ordinary differential equation for , with an initial condition , the following scheme is employed…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
In order to numerically solve the ordinary differential equation for , with an initial condition , the following scheme is employedHere, is the time step and for . This numerical scheme will yield a solution with non-physical oscillations for . The value of isCorrect answer
(D) 2
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The given numerical scheme is the Trapezoidal rule (Crank-Nicolson method). Rearranging the equation for :The amplification factor is . Non-physical oscillations occur when the amplification factor is negative (), as the solution will flip signs at each step instead of decaying monotonically. Thus, the threshold value is 2.12
Q12MCQ1 markMediumThe value of the surface integral where is the external surface of the sphere isThink it through. Then check your answer.Question
The value of the surface integralwhere is the external surface of the sphere isCorrect answer
(C) (4π)/(3) R³
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Using Gauss Divergence Theorem, the surface integral can be converted to a volume integral . The given integral represents the flux of the vector field through the surface .
Calculating the divergence of :The integral becomes:13
Q13MCQ1 markMediumLet be an analytic function, where . If the real part of is , and the imaginary part of is zero for , then isThink it through. Then check your answer.Question
Let be an analytic function, where . If the real part of is , and the imaginary part of is zero for , then isCorrect answer
(D) z
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Given the real part .
Using the Milne-Thomson method to find :1.Find .2.Find .3..4.Integrate to find : .Given that the imaginary part is zero for , i.e., .
.
Thus, .
Therefore, .14
Q14MCQ1 markMediumConsider the system of linear equations The values of and such that there exists a non-trivial null space and…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
Consider the system of linear equations The values of and such that there exists a non-trivial null space and the system admits infinite solutions areCorrect answer
(D) a = 4, b = 14
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For a non-trivial null space, the determinant of the coefficient matrix must be zero ()..
.Now, for infinite solutions, the rank of the augmented matrix must equal the rank of , and both must be less than the number of variables (3).
With , the augmented matrix is:Perform row operations:
:
:
: For infinite solutions, the last row must be all zeros, so .
Thus, and .15
Q15MCQ1 markMediumLet be a twice differentiable function from . If where is sufficiently small (here…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
Let be a twice differentiable function from . If where is sufficiently small (here is the Euclidean norm or distance function), then where oldsymbol{\psi} \in \mathbb{R}^2 is a point on the line segment joining and . If is a strict local minimum of , then which one of the following statements is TRUE?Correct answer
(B) f(x₀)^T p = 0 and p^T ² f() p 0
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For a function to have a local minimum at , the first-order necessary condition is that the gradient at that point must be zero:
for any vector .For to be a strict local minimum, we must have for all sufficiently small non-zero vectors .
Using the given Taylor expansion:
Since , the condition becomes:
.Therefore, the correct statement is and .16
Q16MCQ1 markMediumThe velocity field of a two-dimensional, incompressible flow is given by where and denote the unit vectors in…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
The velocity field of a two-dimensional, incompressible flow is given bywhere and denote the unit vectors in and directions, respectively. If , then isCorrect answer
(C) 3
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For a two-dimensional incompressible flow, the continuity equation is given by:Given the velocity field , we have:
Calculating the partial derivative of with respect to :Substituting this into the continuity equation:Integrating with respect to :Using the boundary condition :Thus, the expression for is:Now, find :Therefore, the correct option is (C).17
Q17MCQ1 markMediumA plane, solid slab of thickness , shown in the figure, has thermal conductivity that varies with the spatial coordinate as , where and are positive…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
A plane, solid slab of thickness , shown in the figure, has thermal conductivity that varies with the spatial coordinate as , where and are positive constants (). The slab walls are maintained at fixed temperatures of and . The slab has no internal heat sources. Considering one-dimensional heat transfer, which one of the following plots qualitatively depicts the steady-state temperature distribution within the slab?
Correct answer
(B) [figure]
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For steady-state, one-dimensional heat conduction without internal heat generation, the heat flux is constant:Given , we have:Since and , the temperature increases with , so . This implies must be negative. Let where .To find the curvature, we take the second derivative:Since and , for all . A negative second derivative indicates that the temperature profile is concave down. Plot (B) qualitatively depicts this distribution.18
Q18MCQ1 markEasyConsider incompressible laminar flow over a flat plate with freestream velocity of . The Nusselt number corresponding to this flow velocity is . If the freestream…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
Consider incompressible laminar flow over a flat plate with freestream velocity of . The Nusselt number corresponding to this flow velocity is . If the freestream velocity is doubled, the Nusselt number changes to . Choose the correct option for .Correct answer
(A) √(2)
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For incompressible laminar flow over a flat plate, the average Nusselt number () is related to the Reynolds number () by the following correlation:The Reynolds number is defined as , which means .
Therefore, .
Given:
When the velocity is doubled ():
Taking the ratio:Thus, the correct option is (A).19
Q19MCQ1 markMediumConsider a hydrodynamically fully developed laminar flow through a circular pipe with the flow along the axis (i.e., direction). In the following statements, is the…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
Consider a hydrodynamically fully developed laminar flow through a circular pipe with the flow along the axis (i.e., direction). In the following statements, is the temperature of the fluid, is the wall temperature and is the bulk mean temperature of the fluid. Which one of the following statements is TRUE?Correct answer
(D) For constant wall temperature (T_w Tₘ) of the duct, (dTₘ)/(dz) increases exponentially with distance along z direction.
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In a hydrodynamically fully developed laminar flow through a circular pipe:1.For thermally fully developed flow, the dimensionless temperature profile is independent of . Thus, . This does not imply .2.For constant wall temperature (), the bulk mean temperature varies as:Differentiating with respect to :This shows that varies exponentially with . Although it technically decreases for , option (D) is the most appropriate choice as it correctly identifies the exponential nature of the variation.3.The Nusselt number () is constant for a thermally fully developed flow.4. only for the constant heat flux condition.20
Q20MCQ1 markEasyA furnace can supply heat steadily at at a rate of . The maximum amount of power (in ) that can be produced by using the heat…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
A furnace can supply heat steadily at at a rate of . The maximum amount of power (in ) that can be produced by using the heat supplied by this furnace in an environment at isCorrect answer
(A) 300
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Given:
Source temperature,
Sink temperature,
Heat supply rate, The maximum power is produced by a reversible (Carnot) heat engine.
Efficiency of Carnot engine,
Maximum power output,
Thus, the correct option is (A).21
Q21MCQ1 markEasyWhich one of the following statements regarding a Rankine cycle is FALSE?Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
Which one of the following statements regarding a Rankine cycle is FALSE?Correct answer
(D) Cycle efficiency increases as boiler pressure decreases.
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Analysis of Rankine cycle efficiency:
(A) Superheating: Increasing the temperature of steam at the turbine inlet increases the average temperature of heat addition, which increases the thermal efficiency. (True)
(B) Turbine outlet pressure: The steam is condensed in the condenser at a constant pressure, which is the saturation pressure corresponding to the condenser temperature. (True)
(C) Condenser pressure: Decreasing the condenser pressure lowers the temperature of heat rejection, which increases the thermal efficiency. (True)
(D) Boiler pressure: Increasing the boiler pressure increases the average temperature of heat addition, thereby increasing the cycle efficiency. Conversely, decreasing the boiler pressure decreases the efficiency. Therefore, the statement "Cycle efficiency increases as boiler pressure decreases" is FALSE. (False)22
Q22MCQ1 markEasyFor a ball bearing, the fatigue life in millions of revolutions is given by , where is the constant applied load and is the basic dynamic…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
For a ball bearing, the fatigue life in millions of revolutions is given by , where is the constant applied load and is the basic dynamic load rating. Which one of the following statements is TRUE?Correct answer
(C) n = 3, assuming that the outer racing is fixed and inner racing is revolving
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For ball bearings, the exponent in the life equation is 3. For roller bearings, it is . The basic dynamic load rating is defined for a condition where the inner race rotates and the outer race is stationary. Thus, and the outer race is fixed while the inner race revolves is the standard true statement.23
Q23MCQ1 markMediumThe change in kinetic energy of an engine is , and minimum and maximum shaft speeds are and…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
The change in kinetic energy of an engine is , and minimum and maximum shaft speeds are and , respectively. Assume that the torque-time function is purely harmonic. To achieve a coefficient of fluctuation of , the moment of inertia (in ) of the flywheel to be mounted on the engine shaft isCorrect answer
(B) 0.096
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The maximum fluctuation of energy is given by .
First, calculate the mean angular velocity:Given and , we solve for :24
Q24MCQ1 markMediumA ram in the form of a rectangular body of size and is suspended by two parallel ropes of lengths . Assume the center-of-mass of the…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
A ram in the form of a rectangular body of size and is suspended by two parallel ropes of lengths . Assume the center-of-mass of the body is at its geometric center and . For striking the object P with a horizontal velocity of , what is the angle with the vertical from which the ram should be released from rest?
Correct answer
(C) 35.1^
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Using the principle of conservation of energy, the potential energy at release equals the kinetic energy at the lowest point (impact):The vertical height change in terms of rope length and angle is:25
Q25MCQ1 markMediumA linear spring-mass-dashpot system with a mass of 2 kg is set in motion with viscous damping. If the natural frequency is 15 Hz, and the amplitudes of two successive cycles…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
A linear spring-mass-dashpot system with a mass of 2 kg is set in motion with viscous damping. If the natural frequency is 15 Hz, and the amplitudes of two successive cycles measured are 7.75 mm and 7.20 mm, the coefficient of viscous damping (in N.s/m) isCorrect answer
(A) 4.41
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Given:
Mass kg
Natural frequency Hz
Amplitudes mm, mmStep 1: Calculate the logarithmic decrement .Step 2: Calculate the damping ratio .Step 3: Calculate the natural circular frequency .Step 4: Calculate the coefficient of viscous damping .Thus, the correct option is (A).26
Q26MCQ1 markEasyWhich one of the following failure theories is the most conservative design approach against fatigue failure?Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
Which one of the following failure theories is the most conservative design approach against fatigue failure?Correct answer
(A) Soderberg line
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The Soderberg line is the most conservative design approach against fatigue failure because it uses the yield strength () for the mean stress component, whereas the Goodman and Gerber theories use the ultimate tensile strength (). Since , the Soderberg line defines a smaller safe region, making it the most conservative.27
Q27MCQ1 markHardA rigid massless tetrahedron is placed such that vertex O is at the origin and the other three vertices A, B, and C lie on the coordinate axes as shown in the figure. The body is…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
A rigid massless tetrahedron is placed such that vertex O is at the origin and the other three vertices A, B, and C lie on the coordinate axes as shown in the figure. The body is acted on by three point loads, of which one is acting at A along -axis and another at point B along -axis. For the body to be in equilibrium, the third point load acting at point O must be
Correct answer
(B) in x - y plane but not along x or y axis
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For the rigid body to be in equilibrium, both the net force and the net moment must be zero.1.Moment Equilibrium: Let the force at A be and the force at B be . The position vectors are and .Taking moments about the origin O:Thus, moment equilibrium about O is already satisfied.2.Force Equilibrium: Let the third force acting at O be .This resultant force lies in the plane. Since it has both and components (assuming ), it is not aligned with either the or axis. Therefore, the third load must be in the plane but not along the or axis.Correct option is (B).28
Q28MCQ1 markEasyThe phases present in pearlite areThink it through. Then check your answer.Question
The phases present in pearlite areCorrect answer
(C) ferrite and cementite
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Pearlite is a two-phased, lamellar (layered) structure composed of alternating layers of -ferrite () and cementite () that occurs in some steels and cast irons. It is formed by the eutectoid decomposition of austenite during slow cooling at . The reaction is: .29
Q29MCQ1 markEasyThe “Earing” phenomenon in metal forming is associated withThink it through. Then check your answer.Question
The “Earing” phenomenon in metal forming is associated withCorrect answer
(A) deep drawing
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Earing is a defect in deep drawing characterized by the formation of wavy edges on the top of the drawn cup. It is caused by planar anisotropy in the sheet metal, where the material's properties (like ductility and strength) vary depending on the direction relative to the rolling direction of the original sheet.30
Q30MCQ1 markEasyThe grinding wheel used to provide the best surface finish isThink it through. Then check your answer.Question
The grinding wheel used to provide the best surface finish isCorrect answer
(D) A80L5V
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In the standard grinding wheel marking system (e.g., A80L5V), the number following the abrasive type (A for Aluminum Oxide) represents the grit or grain size. Higher numbers indicate finer grains. Finer grains are used for finishing operations because they remove less material per pass and leave smaller scratches, resulting in a better surface finish. Among the options, 80 is the highest grit number, representing the finest grain size.31
Q31MCQ1 markEasyThe allowance provided to a pattern for easy withdrawal from a sand mold isThink it through. Then check your answer.Question
The allowance provided to a pattern for easy withdrawal from a sand mold isCorrect answer
(D) shake allowance
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Pattern allowances are provided to compensate for various factors in the casting process:1.Shrinkage allowance: Provided to account for the volume contraction of the metal during cooling.2.Finishing (Machining) allowance: Provided to ensure enough material is available for subsequent machining operations.3.Distortion allowance: Provided to compensate for the tendency of the casting to warp due to uneven cooling.4.Shake (or Rapping) allowance: This is a negative allowance provided to facilitate the easy withdrawal of the pattern from the mold. By rapping (shaking) the pattern, the mold cavity is slightly enlarged, making it easier to pull the pattern out without damaging the mold walls.Note: Draft (or taper) allowance is also provided for easy withdrawal, but since it is not an option, shake allowance is the correct choice.32
Q32MCQ1 markEasyThe most suitable electrode material used for joining low alloy steels using Gas Metal Arc Welding (GMAW) process isThink it through. Then check your answer.Question
The most suitable electrode material used for joining low alloy steels using Gas Metal Arc Welding (GMAW) process isCorrect answer
(C) low alloy steel
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In Gas Metal Arc Welding (GMAW), also known as MIG welding, a consumable wire electrode is continuously fed into the weld pool.1.The electrode material must be compatible with the base metal to ensure a sound joint with matching mechanical and chemical properties.2.For welding low alloy steels, the electrode is typically a low alloy steel wire of similar composition.3.Tungsten is used as a non-consumable electrode in Gas Tungsten Arc Welding (GTAW/TIG), not GMAW.4.Copper and cadmium are not standard electrode materials for welding steel in this process.Therefore, low alloy steel is the most suitable electrode material.33
Q33MCQ1 markEasyThe preparatory functions in Computer Numerical Controlled (CNC) machine programing are denoted by the alphabetThink it through. Then check your answer.Question
The preparatory functions in Computer Numerical Controlled (CNC) machine programing are denoted by the alphabetCorrect answer
(A) G
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In CNC programming, codes are used to instruct the machine tool:1.G-codes are known as preparatory functions. They prepare the machine control unit (MCU) for a specific type of operation or motion, such as linear interpolation (G01), circular interpolation (G02/G03), or rapid positioning (G00).2.M-codes are miscellaneous functions used for auxiliary actions like starting/stopping the spindle (M03/M05) or turning coolant on/off (M08/M09).3.P is often used for dwell time or subprogram calls.4.O is typically used for the program number.Thus, preparatory functions are denoted by the alphabet G.34
Q34MCQ1 markMediumA set of jobs arrive at time to a production line consisting of two workstations in series. Each job must be processed by both workstations in sequence…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
A set of jobs arrive at time to a production line consisting of two workstations in series. Each job must be processed by both workstations in sequence (i.e., the first followed by the second). The process times (in minutes) for each job on each workstation in the production line are given below.The sequence in which the jobs must be processed by the production line if the total makespan of production is to be minimized isJob U V W X Y Z Workstation 1 5 7 3 4 6 8 Workstation 2 4 6 6 8 5 7 Correct answer
(A) W-X-Z-V-Y-U
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To minimize the makespan for jobs on 2 machines, we use Johnson's Rule:1.Identify the minimum processing time among all jobs on both workstations.2.If the minimum time is on Workstation 1, schedule that job as early as possible.3.If the minimum time is on Workstation 2, schedule that job as late as possible.4.Remove the scheduled job and repeat.Processing times: .- Min time is 3 (Job W on Workstation 1): Sequence starts with W.
- Next min time is 4 (Job U on Workstation 2 and Job X on Workstation 1): Schedule X as early as possible (after W) and U as late as possible. Sequence: .
- Next min time is 5 (Job Y on Workstation 2): Schedule Y as late as possible (before U). Sequence: .
- Next min time is 6 (Job V on Workstation 2): Schedule V as late as possible (before Y). Sequence: .
- Remaining job is Z: Sequence: .
35
Q35MCQ1 markEasyA queueing system has one single server workstation that admits an infinitely long queue. The rate of arrival of jobs to the queueing system follows the Poisson distribution with…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
A queueing system has one single server workstation that admits an infinitely long queue. The rate of arrival of jobs to the queueing system follows the Poisson distribution with a mean of 5 jobs/hour. The service time of the server is exponentially distributed with a mean of 6 minutes. In steady state operation of the queueing system, the probability that the server is not busy at any point in time isCorrect answer
(C) 0.50
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This is an queueing model.
Arrival rate, jobs/hour.
Mean service time minutes hours hours.
Service rate, jobs/hour.
Utilization factor, .
The probability that the server is not busy (idle) is .36
Q36MCQ2 marksEasyThe matrix (where ) has a negative eigenvalue if is greater thanThink it through. Then check your answer.Question
The matrix (where ) has a negative eigenvalue if is greater thanCorrect answer
(A) 3/8
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Let the matrix be .
The trace of the matrix is . Since the trace is the sum of eigenvalues (), and we are looking for a negative eigenvalue, the other eigenvalue must be positive and greater than 4 in magnitude.
For a matrix, the product of eigenvalues is equal to the determinant: .
If one eigenvalue is negative and the other is positive, their product must be negative.
.
For a negative eigenvalue, we require :
.37
Q37MCQ2 marksMediumIn the pipe network shown in the figure, all pipes have the same cross-section and can be assumed to have the same friction factor. The pipes connecting points , , and …Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
In the pipe network shown in the figure, all pipes have the same cross-section and can be assumed to have the same friction factor. The pipes connecting points , , and with point have an equal length . The pipe connecting points and has a length . The pressures at the ends , , and are equal. The flow rate in the pipe connecting and is . Assume that the fluid flow is steady, incompressible, and the pressure losses at the pipe entrance and junction are negligible. Consider the following statements:I : The flow rate in pipe connecting and is .II: The pressure difference between and is equal to the pressure difference between and .Which one of the following options is CORRECT?
Correct answer
(C) Both I and II are True
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For pipe flow, the pressure drop is given by . Assuming laminar flow for a simple network where :1.Let be the pressure at junction . Given .2. where .3..4. where .5.Since , then . Thus, Statement II is True.6.From , we get .7.From , we get .8.By continuity at : .9.Therefore, . Statement I is True.Both statements are True.38
Q38MCQ2 marksMediumA company orders gears in conditions identical to those considered in the economic order quantity (EOQ) model in inventory control. The annual demand is 8000 gears, the cost per…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
A company orders gears in conditions identical to those considered in the economic order quantity (EOQ) model in inventory control. The annual demand is 8000 gears, the cost per order is 300 rupees, and the holding cost is 12 rupees per month per gear. The company uses an order size that is 25% more than the optimal order quantity determined by the EOQ model. The percentage change in the total cost of ordering and holding inventory from that associated with the optimal order quantity isCorrect answer
(A) 2.5
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The total cost in the EOQ model is . At the optimal order quantity , the ordering cost equals the holding cost: .
Let the new order size be , where .
For :
The percentage change is .39
Q39MCQ2 marksHardAt the current basic feasible solution (bfs) (), the simplex method yields the following form of a linear programming problem in…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
At the current basic feasible solution (bfs) (), the simplex method yields the following form of a linear programming problem in standard form.Here the objective function is written as a function of the non-basic variables. If the simplex method moves to the adjacent bfs () that best improves the objective function, which of the following represents the objective function at , assuming that the objective function is written in the same manner as above?Correct answer
(A) z = -4 - 5x₁ + 2x₃
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1.Current non-basic variables are and . The objective is to minimize .2.To best improve , the variable with the most negative coefficient enters the basis. Here, enters ().3.Perform the ratio test for entering:- From . Ratio is .
- From . Ratio is .
- does not depend on .
5.Substitute into the objective function:.
This matches option (A).40
Q40MSQ2 marksMediumSteady, compressible flow of air takes place through an adiabatic converging-diverging nozzle, as shown in the figure. For a particular value of pressure difference across the…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
Steady, compressible flow of air takes place through an adiabatic converging-diverging nozzle, as shown in the figure. For a particular value of pressure difference across the nozzle, a stationary normal shock wave forms in the diverging section of the nozzle. If and denote the flow conditions just upstream and downstream of the normal shock, respectively, which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?
Correct answer
(A) Static pressure at E is lower than the static pressure at F; (B) Density at E is lower than the density at F; (D) Specific entropy at E is lower than the specific entropy at F
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Across a stationary normal shock wave in a steady, adiabatic flow:1.Static Pressure (): The pressure increases across the shock, so . Statement (A) is TRUE.2.Density (): The density increases across the shock, so . Statement (B) is TRUE.3.Mach Number (): The flow is supersonic upstream () and becomes subsonic downstream (). Thus, . Statement (C) is FALSE.4.Specific Entropy (): A shock wave is an irreversible process, leading to an increase in entropy. Thus, . Statement (D) is TRUE.41
Q41MSQ2 marksMediumWhich of the following beam(s) is/are statically indeterminate?42
Q42NAT2 marksMediumIf the value of the double integral is , then is ___________ (answer in integer).Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
If the value of the double integralis , then is ___________ (answer in integer).Correct answer
25 to 25
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Evaluate the double integral step-by-step:Step 1: Integrate with respect to :Step 2: Integrate the result with respect to :Comparing this with , we find .43
Q43NAT2 marksMediumIf satisfies the differential equation subject to the condition , then the value of is ________ (rounded off to 2 decimal…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
If satisfies the differential equationsubject to the condition , then the value of is ________ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).Correct answer
-1.4
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The given differential equation is:This is a linear differential equation of the form , where and .
The integrating factor () is:The general solution is:Using the initial condition :Thus, the solution is .
At :Rounding off to 2 decimal places, we get .44
Q44NAT2 marksMediumLet be a continuous random variable defined on such that its probability density function for and otherwise. Let .…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
Let be a continuous random variable defined on such that its probability density function for and otherwise. Let . Then the expected value of is_____. (rounded off to 2 decimal places)Correct answer
0.38 to 0.39
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Given that is a continuous random variable with a probability density function (PDF) for . This indicates that follows a continuous uniform distribution, .We are asked to find the expected value of . By the law of the unconscious statistician (LOTUS), the expected value is given by:Substituting and for :To solve this integral, we can use the substitution , which implies . The limits of integration change from to :Using the standard integral :Since :Using the value :Rounding to two decimal places, we get . The official GATE answer key allows a range of to .45
Q45NAT2 marksMediumConsider an air-standard Brayton cycle with adiabatic compressor and turbine, and a regenerator, as shown in the figure. Air enters the compressor at 100 kPa and 300 K and exits…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
Consider an air-standard Brayton cycle with adiabatic compressor and turbine, and a regenerator, as shown in the figure. Air enters the compressor at 100 kPa and 300 K and exits the compressor at 600 kPa and 550 K. The air exits the combustion chamber at 1250 K and exits the adiabatic turbine at 100 kPa and 800 K. The exhaust air from the turbine is used to preheat the air in the regenerator. The exhaust air exits the regenerator (state 6) at 600 K. There is no pressure drop across the regenerator and the combustion chamber. Also, there is no heat loss from the regenerator to the surroundings. The ratio of specific heats at constant pressure and volume is . The thermal efficiency of the cycle is _________ % (answer in integer).
Correct answer
40 to 40
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Given state points:
1: Compressor inlet ( K)
2: Compressor outlet ( K)
3: Regenerator outlet (air side)
4: Combustion chamber outlet ( K)
5: Turbine outlet ( K)
6: Regenerator outlet (gas side) ( K)Work done by compressor:
Work done by turbine:
Net work output: In the regenerator, heat lost by hot gas = heat gained by cold air (since no heat loss to surroundings):
KHeat input in combustion chamber: Thermal efficiency: .46
Q46NAT2 marksHardA piston-cylinder arrangement shown in the figure has a stop located above the base. The cylinder initially contains air at and…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
A piston-cylinder arrangement shown in the figure has a stop located above the base. The cylinder initially contains air at and and the piston is resting in equilibrium at a position which is above the stops. The system is now cooled to the ambient temperature of . Consider air to be an ideal gas with a value of gas constant .The absolute value of specific work done during the process is________ (rounded off to decimal place)
Correct answer
58 to 61
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1.Initial State (1):- Pressure
- Temperature
- Height of piston
- The piston is in equilibrium, so as long as it moves freely, the pressure remains constant at .
- The piston will move down as the air is cooled until it hits the stops at .
- Using the ideal gas law for a constant pressure process:
- The final temperature is .
- Since , the piston will rest on the stops, and the volume remains constant from state 2 to state 3.
- Specific work from 1 to 2 (constant pressure):
- Specific work from 2 to 3 (constant volume):
- Total specific work
47
Q47NAT2 marksMediumA heat pump (H.P.) is driven by the work output of a heat engine (H.E.) as shown in the figure. The heat engine extracts of heat from the source at…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
A heat pump (H.P.) is driven by the work output of a heat engine (H.E.) as shown in the figure. The heat engine extracts of heat from the source at . The heat pump absorbs heat from the ambient at and delivers heat to the room which is maintained at . Considering the combined system to be ideal, the total amount of heat delivered to the room together by the heat engine and heat pump is _______ (answer in integer).
Correct answer
1620 to 1620
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1.Heat Engine (HE):Source temperature , Sink (Room) temperature .
Heat input .
Efficiency .
Work output .
Heat rejected to room .2.Heat Pump (HP):Ambient temperature , Room temperature .
Work input .
Ideal COP of HP = .
Heat delivered to room .3.Total Heat Delivered to Room:.48
Q48NAT2 marksMediumConsider a slab of thickness. There is a uniform heat generation of inside the slab. The left and right faces of the slab are…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
Consider a slab of thickness. There is a uniform heat generation of inside the slab. The left and right faces of the slab are maintained at and , respectively. The plate has a constant thermal conductivity of . Considering a 1-D steady state heat conduction, the location of the maximum temperature from the left face will be at _____ (answer in integer).
Correct answer
6 to 6
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The 1-D steady state heat conduction equation with internal heat generation is:Integrating twice:Boundary conditions:
At , .
At , :Maximum temperature occurs where :49
Q49NAT2 marksMediumA condenser is used as a heat exchanger in a large steam power plant in which steam is condensed to liquid water. The condenser is a shell and tube heat exchanger which consists…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
A condenser is used as a heat exchanger in a large steam power plant in which steam is condensed to liquid water. The condenser is a shell and tube heat exchanger which consists of 1 shell and 20,000 tubes. Water flows through each of the tubes at a rate of 1 kg/s with an inlet temperature of 30 °C. The steam in the condenser shell condenses at the rate of 430 kg/s at a temperature of 50 °C. If the heat of vaporization is 2.326 MJ/kg and specific heat of water is 4 kJ/(kg.K), the effectiveness of the heat exchanger is ________ (rounded off to 3 decimal places).Correct answer
0.62 to 0.63
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Given:
Number of tubes,
Mass flow rate of water per tube,
Total mass flow rate of water,
Specific heat of water,
Heat capacity rate of water, Mass flow rate of steam,
Heat of vaporization,
Total heat transfer rate, In a condenser, the hot fluid (steam) undergoes phase change at constant temperature (), so its heat capacity rate . Thus, .The maximum possible heat transfer rate is:
The effectiveness is defined as:
Rounding off to 3 decimal places, we get .50
Q50NAT2 marksMediumConsider a hemispherical furnace of diameter m with a flat base. The dome of the furnace has an emissivity of 0.7 and the flat base is a blackbody. The base and the dome…51
Q51NAT2 marksMediumA liquid fills a horizontal capillary tube whose one end is dipped in a large pool of the liquid. Experiments show that the distance travelled by the liquid meniscus inside…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
A liquid fills a horizontal capillary tube whose one end is dipped in a large pool of the liquid. Experiments show that the distance travelled by the liquid meniscus inside the capillary in time is given bywhere is the surface tension, is the inner radius of the capillary, and is the dynamic viscosity of the liquid. If is a dimensionless constant, then the exponent is __________ (rounded off to 1 decimal place).Correct answer
0.5 to 0.5
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Using dimensional analysis:
The equation is . Substituting dimensions:
Equating powers of :
For
For
For Substitute into the equation:
Thus, the exponent is 0.5.52
Q52NAT2 marksMediumThe Levai type-A train illustrated in the figure has gears with module mm/tooth. Gears 2 and 3 have 19 and 24 teeth respectively. Gear 2 is fixed and internal gear 4…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
The Levai type-A train illustrated in the figure has gears with module mm/tooth. Gears 2 and 3 have 19 and 24 teeth respectively. Gear 2 is fixed and internal gear 4 rotates at 20 rev/min counter-clockwise. The magnitude of angular velocity of the arm is__________ rev/min. (rounded off to 2 decimal places)
Correct answer
15 to 16
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1.Identify the gear train configuration: The Levai type-A is an epicyclic gear train where gear 2 is the sun gear, gear 3 is the planet gear, gear 4 is the internal ring gear, and 1 is the arm.2.Determine the number of teeth on gear 4 (): For an internal gear meshing with a planet that meshes with a sun gear, the radii relationship is . Since , we have .3.Speed Analysis using the Tabular Method:- Let be the speed of the arm ().
- Let be the speed of gear 2 relative to the arm.
- Speed of Arm =
- Speed of Gear 2 () =
- Speed of Gear 4 () = (Note: Gear 2 and 4 rotate in opposite directions relative to the arm because gear 3 acts as an idler between an external and an internal mesh).
- Gear 2 is fixed: .
- Gear 4 rotates at 20 rpm CCW: .
- rev/min.
53
Q53NAT2 marksMediumA horizontal beam of length 1200 mm is pinned at the left end and is resting on a roller at the other end as shown in the figure. A linearly varying distributed load is applied on…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
A horizontal beam of length 1200 mm is pinned at the left end and is resting on a roller at the other end as shown in the figure. A linearly varying distributed load is applied on the beam. The magnitude of maximum bending moment acting on the beam is _______ N.m. (round off to 1 decimal place)
Correct answer
9 to 9.5
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1.Convert units and find total load: Length m. Maximum load intensity N/m. Total load N.2.Calculate support reactions: The total load acts at from the left support (A).- N.
- N.
- Shear force .
- Bending moment .
5.Calculate :- N.m.
54
Q54NAT2 marksHardAt the instant when OP is vertical and AP is horizontal, the link OD is rotating counter clockwise at a constant rate rad/s. Pin P on link OD slides in the slot BC of…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
At the instant when OP is vertical and AP is horizontal, the link OD is rotating counter clockwise at a constant rate rad/s. Pin P on link OD slides in the slot BC of link ABC which is hinged at A, and causes a clockwise rotation of the link ABC. The magnitude of angular velocity of link ABC for this instant is _________________ rad/s (rounded off to 2 decimal places).
Correct answer
11.3 to 12.7
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1.Velocity of pin P on link OD: Since OP is vertical and OD rotates CCW at rad/s, the velocity of P is horizontal to the left: m/s.2.Relative velocity relationship: Let be the point on link ABC coincident with pin P. The velocity of is related to by , where is along the slot BC.3.Kinematic constraints:- Since AP is horizontal and A is a fixed hinge, must be vertical (perpendicular to AP).
- The slot BC is at to the horizontal.
- Horizontal component: m/s.
- Vertical component: m/s.
6.The magnitude of the angular velocity of link ABC is 12.12 rad/s.55
Q55NAT2 marksHardA vibratory system consists of mass , a vertical spring of stiffness and a horizontal spring of stiffness . The end A of the horizontal spring is given a horizontal…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
A vibratory system consists of mass , a vertical spring of stiffness and a horizontal spring of stiffness . The end A of the horizontal spring is given a horizontal motion . The other end of the spring is connected to an inextensible rope that passes over two massless pulleys as shown. Assume kg, kN/m, and neglect friction. The magnitude of critical driving frequency for which the oscillations of mass tend to become excessively large is _________ rad/s (answer in integer).
Correct answer
29 to 31
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The critical driving frequency occurs at resonance, where the driving frequency equals the natural frequency of the system.Let be the downward displacement of the mass . The pulley attached to the mass moves down by , which requires the rope to move by . Thus, the extension of the horizontal spring is . The vertical spring is stretched by .The total potential energy of the system is:The equivalent stiffness of the system is .The natural frequency is given by:Given kN/m N/m and kg:Thus, the critical driving frequency is 30 rad/s.56
Q56NAT2 marksMediumA solid massless cylindrical member of 50 mm diameter is rigidly attached at one end, and is subjected to an axial force kN and a torque N. m at the other end…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
A solid massless cylindrical member of 50 mm diameter is rigidly attached at one end, and is subjected to an axial force kN and a torque N. m at the other end as shown. Assume that the axis of the cylinder is normal to the support. Considering distortion energy theory with allowable yield stress as 300 MPa, the factor of safety in the design is _____ (rounded off to 1 decimal place).
Correct answer
4.3 to 4.7
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1.Calculate the stresses:- Diameter mm m.
- Axial stress MPa.
- Torsional shear stress MPa.
3.Calculate the Factor of Safety (FOS):Rounding to one decimal place, the factor of safety is 4.5.57
Q57NAT2 marksHardThe figure shows a thin cylindrical pressure vessel constructed by welding plates together along a line that makes an angle with the horizontal. The closed…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
The figure shows a thin cylindrical pressure vessel constructed by welding plates together along a line that makes an angle with the horizontal. The closed vessel has a wall thickness of 10 mm and diameter of 2 m. When subjected to an internal pressure of 200 kPa, the magnitude of the normal stress acting on the weld is _________ MPa (rounded off to 1 decimal place).
Correct answer
12.3 to 12.7
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1.Calculate the principal stresses:- Internal pressure kPa MPa.
- Diameter m mm.
- Thickness mm.
- Hoop stress MPa.
- Longitudinal stress MPa.
The weld line makes an angle with the longitudinal axis. The normal to the weld line makes an angle with the longitudinal axis.
The normal stress on a plane whose normal is at angle to the longitudinal axis is:
Thus, the normal stress acting on the weld is 12.5 MPa.58
Q58NAT2 marksMediumA three-hinge arch ABC in the form of a semi-circle is shown in the figure. The arch is in static equilibrium under vertical loads of and .…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
A three-hinge arch ABC in the form of a semi-circle is shown in the figure. The arch is in static equilibrium under vertical loads of and . Neglect friction at all the hinges. The magnitude of the horizontal reaction at B is ______ kN (rounded off to 1 decimal place).
Correct answer
37 to 38
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1.Calculate vertical reactions at supports A and C:Let and be the vertical reactions at A and C respectively. The total span is (radius ).
Taking moments about A:
From :2.Calculate horizontal reaction using the internal hinge at B:The bending moment at the crown hinge B is zero (). Considering the right half of the arch (BC):
3.Determine horizontal reaction at B:For the equilibrium of the right half BC, the horizontal force at B () must balance the horizontal reaction at C ().
.59
Q59NAT2 marksHardA band brake shown in the figure has a coefficient of friction of 0.3. The band can take a maximum force of 1.5 kN. The maximum braking force (F) that can be safely applied is…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
A band brake shown in the figure has a coefficient of friction of 0.3. The band can take a maximum force of 1.5 kN. The maximum braking force (F) that can be safely applied is _______ N (rounded off to the nearest integer).
Correct answer
115 to 119
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1.Identify tight and slack sides:The drum rotates counter-clockwise (CCW). The band is wrapped over the top. Friction acts in the direction of rotation on the band, pulling it from the right attachment towards the left attachment. Thus, the left attachment (at the fulcrum) is the tight side () and the right attachment (at ) is the slack side ().2.Calculate band tensions:The maximum force the band can take is .
The ratio of tensions is given by .
Here, and radians.
.3.Calculate the braking force F:Taking moments about the fulcrum for the lever:
.
Rounding to the nearest integer, .60
Q60NAT2 marksMediumA cutting tool provides a tool life of 60 minutes while machining with the cutting speed of 60 m/min. When the same tool is used for machining the same material, it provides a…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
A cutting tool provides a tool life of 60 minutes while machining with the cutting speed of 60 m/min. When the same tool is used for machining the same material, it provides a tool life of 10 minutes for a cutting speed of 100 m/min. If the cutting speed is changed to 80 m/min for the same tool and work material combination, the tool life computed using Taylor’s tool life model is____________ minutes (rounded off to 2 decimal places).Correct answer
21 to 22.5
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1.Determine Taylor's exponent (n):Taylor's tool life equation is .
Given: and .
2.Calculate tool life for V = 80 m/min:
.61
Q61NAT2 marksMediumAluminium is casted in a cube-shaped mold having dimensions as . Another mold of the same mold material is used to cast a…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
Aluminium is casted in a cube-shaped mold having dimensions as . Another mold of the same mold material is used to cast a sphere of aluminium having a diameter of . The pouring temperature for both cases is the same. The ratio of the solidification times of the cube-shaped mold to the spherical mold is ________ (answer in integer).Correct answer
1 to 1
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According to Chvorinov's rule, the solidification time is given by:where is the volume and is the surface area of the casting.For the cube-shaped mold with side :For the spherical mold with diameter :Since the mold material and pouring temperature are the same, the mold constant is identical for both. The ratio of solidification times is:The ratio is 1.62
Q62NAT2 marksMediumA blanking operation is performed on C20 steel sheet to obtain a circular disc having a diameter of mm and a thickness of mm. An allowance of is provided. The…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
A blanking operation is performed on C20 steel sheet to obtain a circular disc having a diameter of mm and a thickness of mm. An allowance of is provided. The punch size used for the operation is ___________ mm (rounded off to decimal places).Correct answer
19.84 to 19.84
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In a blanking operation, the size of the die is made equal to the size of the blank (the circular disc), and the clearance is provided on the punch. Given:- Blank diameter () = mm
- Sheet thickness () = mm
- Allowance () =
63
Q63NAT2 marksMediumIn an arc welding process, the voltage and current are V and A, respectively. The cross-sectional area of the joint is mm and the welding speed is mm/s.…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
In an arc welding process, the voltage and current are V and A, respectively. The cross-sectional area of the joint is mm and the welding speed is mm/s. The heat required to melt the material is J/mm. The percentage of heat lost to the surrounding during the welding process is _________ (rounded off to decimal places).Correct answer
66 to 67
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Given:- Voltage () = V
- Current () = A
- Cross-sectional area () = mm
- Welding speed () = mm/s
- Melting energy () = J/mm
64
Q64NAT2 marksMediumA flat surface of a C60 steel having dimensions of (length) (width) is produced by a HSS slab mill cutter. The 8-toothed cutter has…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
A flat surface of a C60 steel having dimensions of (length) (width) is produced by a HSS slab mill cutter. The 8-toothed cutter has diameter and width. The feed per tooth is , cutting velocity is and depth of cut is . The machining time required to remove the entire stock is _____________ minutes (rounded off to 2 decimal places).Correct answer
2.2 to 2.65
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Given data:
Workpiece length,
Workpiece width,
Number of teeth,
Cutter diameter,
Cutter width,
Feed per tooth,
Cutting velocity,
Depth of cut, Step 1: Calculate the rotational speed () of the cutter.Step 2: Calculate the table feed rate ().Step 3: Calculate the approach length () for slab milling.Step 4: Calculate the machining time ().
Assuming only approach length is considered for the cutter to start removing material:If overtravel is also considered (to completely clear the stock), the time would be:Both values fall within the official range of to . Rounding to two decimal places gives .65
Q65NAT2 marksMediumIn a supplier-retailer supply chain, the demand of each retailer, the capacity of each supplier, and the unit cost in rupees of material supply from each supplier to each retailer…Think it through. Then check your answer.Question
In a supplier-retailer supply chain, the demand of each retailer, the capacity of each supplier, and the unit cost in rupees of material supply from each supplier to each retailer are tabulated below. The supply chain manager wishes to minimize the total cost of transportation across the supply chain.The optimal cost of satisfying the total demand from all retailers is _____ rupees (answer in integer).Retailer I Retailer II Retailer III Retailer IV Capacity Supplier A 11 16 19 13 300 Supplier B 5 10 7 8 300 Supplier C 12 14 17 11 300 Supplier D 8 15 11 9 300 Demand 300 300 300 300 Correct answer
12300 to 12300
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This is a balanced transportation problem where total capacity () equals total demand (). Since each supplier's capacity and each retailer's demand are identical (300 units), this problem is equivalent to an assignment problem where we need to assign one supplier to exactly one retailer to minimize the sum of unit costs.Using the Hungarian method or inspection to find the minimum unit cost sum:Unit Cost Matrix:Let's test the assignment:- Supplier A to Retailer I: Cost = 11
- Supplier B to Retailer III: Cost = 7
- Supplier C to Retailer II: Cost = 14
- Supplier D to Retailer IV: Cost = 9
- Supplier A to Retailer I: Cost = 11
- Supplier B to Retailer II: Cost = 10
- Supplier C to Retailer IV: Cost = 11
- Supplier D to Retailer III: Cost = 11
- Supplier B to Retailer I: Cost = 5
- Supplier D to Retailer IV: Cost = 9
- Supplier C to Retailer II: Cost = 14
- Supplier A to Retailer III: Cost = 19
Total Optimal Cost = rupees.
